Would this be considered a "schism"?

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Tom
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Would this be considered a "schism"?

Postby Tom » Sun Feb 10, 2013 10:28 pm

Would a person who believes that the Theravada sect is more likely to preserve the word of the Buddha, and that Mahayana and Vajrayana sects do not, and tells other people that Mahayana and Vajrayana sects do not follow the word of the Buddha, have created a "schism" in doing so?
Last edited by Tom on Sun Feb 10, 2013 11:05 pm, edited 1 time in total.

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polarbear101
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Re: Would this be considered a "schism"?

Postby polarbear101 » Sun Feb 10, 2013 11:03 pm

The schism already happened, that's why we have theravada, mahayana, and vajrayana. So I would say no. Although if you were to bring up such a subject I would do it with courtesy in mind and focus on historical facts and findings to make your point. The best thing to say would just be to say that the Pali Nikayas and the corresponding Chinese Agamas are the earliest strata of buddhist texts and therefore the most reliable, IMHO.

:namaste:
"I don't envision a single thing that, when developed & cultivated, leads to such great benefit as the mind. The mind, when developed & cultivated, leads to great benefit."

"I don't envision a single thing that, when undeveloped & uncultivated, brings about such suffering & stress as the mind. The mind, when undeveloped & uncultivated, brings about suffering & stress."

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retrofuturist
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Re: Would this be considered a "schism"?

Postby retrofuturist » Sun Feb 10, 2013 11:44 pm

"Do not force others, including children, by any means whatsoever, to adopt your views, whether by authority, threat, money, propaganda, or even education." - Ven. Thich Nhat Hanh

"The uprooting of identity is seen by the noble ones as pleasurable; but this contradicts what the whole world sees." (Snp 3.12)

"To argue with a person who has renounced the use of reason is like administering medicine to the dead" - Thomas Paine

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Cittasanto
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Re: Would this be considered a "schism"?

Postby Cittasanto » Mon Feb 11, 2013 12:04 am

:anjali: :anjali: :anjali:


He who knows only his own side of the case knows little of that. His reasons may be good, and no one may have been able to refute them.
But if he is equally unable to refute the reasons on the opposite side, if he does not so much as know what they are, he has no ground for preferring either opinion …
...
He must be able to hear them from persons who actually believe them … he must know them in their most plausible and persuasive form.

whynotme
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Re: Would this be considered a "schism"?

Postby whynotme » Thu Feb 14, 2013 7:21 pm

Please stop following me


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